Can anyone confirm my most recent thoughts??? (I now realise that it was a sheer fluke that I studied A level maths - obviously I learned nothing!!
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This is to do with a CG calculation I have to make for some foreign taxation.
GN
As I understand it, the partial sale means that the average price per share for CGT is unaffected. If you deduct the sale proceeds from the original cost, you can easily end up with a negative cost, which is obviously incorrect.GN100 wrote:I'm unsure where to post this question but here seemed a good place to start. For all my investing life I had assumed that my average share purchase price if I made several purchases at different prices was the sum of the purchase costs divided by the number of shares purchased. That's not difficult and agrees with my broker's figure. I had also assumed that the sale of part of the holding made no difference to my average purchase price - which also agrees with my broker's figure. However, I have suddenly rethought this. I now think that my average purchase price is the sum of the purchase costs less the sale proceeds divided by the new total of shares held, which does not agree with my broker's figure.
Can anyone confirm my most recent thoughts??? (I now realise that it was a sheer fluke that I studied A level maths - obviously I learned nothing!!)
This is to do with a CG calculation I have to make for some foreign taxation.
GN